Match each PPP establishment step with its appropriate swquence number
Step 1
Step 2
Step 3
Step 4
Step 5
A. Test link quality(optional
B. Negotiate Layer 3 protocol options
C. Send link-establishment frames to negotiate such as MTU, compression, and authentication
D. Send configuration-acknowledgement frames
E. NCP reaches Open state
Which output from the show interface s0/0/0 command indicates that the far end of a point-to-point link has a diffrent encapsulation set than the local router
A. serial 0/0/0 is down, line protocol is down
B. serial 0/0/0 is up. line protocol is down
C. serial 0/0/0 is up. line protocol is up(looped
D. serial 0/0/0 is up. line protocol is down(disabled
E. serial 0/0/0 is administratively down. line protocol is down
What is the default encapsulation for serial interfaces on a Cisco router
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. Frame Relay
D. X.25
What is the function of the Protocol field in a PPP frame
A. It identify the application layer protocol that will process the frame
B. It identify the transport layer protocol that will process the frame
C. It identify the data link layer protocol encapsulation in the frame's data field
D. It identify the network layer protocol encapsulation in the frame's data field
Match each description with its corresponding term
Error control
Allows load balancing
Authentication protocols
Compression protocols
A. Stacker/predictor
B. Magic number
C. Multilink
D. CHAP/PAP
E. Call in
( Which of the following statements describe the function of statistical time-division multiplexing (STDM) ? (Choose three
A. Multiple data streames share one common channel
B. Bit interleaving controls the timing mechanism that place data on the channel
C. Time slots are used on a first-come, first-served basis
D. STDM was developed to overcome the inefficiency caused by time slots still being allocated even when the channel has no data to transmit
E. Sources of data alternate during transmission and are reconstructed at the receiving end
F. Priority can be dedicated to one data source
Which of the following describes the serial connection between two routers using the high-level data link control(HDLC) protocol
A. Synchoronous or asynchronous bit-oriented transmissions using a universal frame format
B. Synchronous bit-oriented transmission using a frame format that allows flow contro and error detection
C. Asynchronous bit-oriented transmissions using a frame format derived from the Synchoronous Data Link(SDLC) protocol
D. Asnchronous bit-oriented transmissions using a V.35. DTE/DCE interface
If an authentication protocol is configured for PPP operation, when is the client or user workstation authenticated
A. Before link establishment
B. During the link establishment phase
C. Before the network layer protocol configuration begins
D. After the network layer procol configuration has ended
Why are Network Control Protocols used in PPP
A. To establish and terminate data links
B. To provide authentication capablities to PPP
C. To manage network congestion and to allow quality testing of the link
D. To allow multiple Layer 3 protocols to operate over the same physical link
Which statement describes the PAP auhtentication protocol
A. It sends encrypted passwords by default
B. It uses atwo-way handshake to establish identity
C. It protects against repeated trail-and-error attacks
D. It requires the same username to be configured on every router
What is required to successfully establish a connection between two routers using CHAP authentication
A. The hostnames of both routers must be the same
B. The usernames of both routers must be the same
C. The enable secret passwords configured on both routers must be the same
D. The password configured with the router's username must be the same on both routers
E. The PPP chap sent-username command be configured the same on both routers
What is used to identify the path to the next Frame Relay switch in a Frame Relay netwok
A. CIR
B. DLCI
C. FECN
D. BECN
Why are Frame Relay paths referred to a virtual
A. There are no dedicated circuits to and from the Frame Relay carrier
B. Frame Relay PVCs are created and discarded on demand
C. The connections between PVC endpoint act like dialup circuits
D. There are no dedicated circuits inside the Frame Relay carier cloud
Which statement accurately describes the spli-horizon problem with regard to a multi-point topology
A. Split horizon must be disabled for all non-IP protocols
B. Split horizon creates IP routing loops in multipoint domains
C. Split horizon does not apply to broadcasts, so it does not protect protocols that use broadcast updates
D. Split horizon prevents any interface from accepting a valid update and forwarding in all the other interfaces
( Why is Frame Relay more cost-effective than leased lines? (Choose two
A. Time division multiplexing
B. It uses less equipment
C. Optimized packet routing
D. It shares bandwidth across a large customer base
E. Dynamic IP addressing
Match each status from the show frame-relay pvc command with its meaning
Active
Inactive
Deleted
A. The DLCI is programmed in the Frame Relay switch, but the other end of the PVC may be down
B. The DLCI does not exit on the router
C. The DLCI is programmed in the Frame Relay switch and is usable
D. The DLCI does not exit on th Frame Relay switch for this router
E. The DLCI is programmed on the other end of the PVC for this router
What reliability advantage does Frame Relay offer over leased lines
A. Frame Relay access circuits are higher-grade circuits than leased lines
B. The pathways for virtual circuits inside the carrier are meshed
C. From end to end, a single virtual circuits uses a fixed error-checked path
D. Frame Relay uses more-sophisticated error-detection methods
Which situation favors a multipoint topology over point-to-point
A. When VLSM cannot be used to conserve addresses
B. When using routing protocols other than IP
C. When using a frame mesh topology to save access circuits
D. When using a routing protocol that required broadcast updates
What is the advantage of calculating subinterface in a Frame Relay environment
A. It makes the DLCIs globally significant
B. It eliminates the need for using Inverse ARP
C. It solves split-horizon issues
D. It improves flow control and bandwidth usage
Which protocol can provide error correction for data that is transmitted over a Frame Relay link
A. FECN
B. FTP
C. LMI
D. TCP
E. UDP
Match each command with its description
show interface
show frame-relay lmi
show frame-relay pvc
show frame-relay map
show frame-relay lmi
A. Shows the status of the virtual circuit and FECN/BECN
B. verifies that the router and Frame Relay switch are sending and receiving LMI packets properly
C. Verifies encapsulation, LMI type, LMI DLCI, and LMI status
D. Verifies LMI statistics
E. Verifies the destination IP address mapping to the DLCI
At what rate does a service provider guarantee to transfer data into the Frame Relay network
A. Baud rate
B. Timing rate
C. DAta transfet rate
D. Committed information rate
How are DLCI numbers assigned
A. The are assigned by a DLCI server
B. The are assigned arbitrarily by the user
C. The are assigned by the service provide
D. They are assigned based on the host IP address
A router can reach multiple networks through a Frame Relay interface. How does the router know which DLCI to assign to the IP address of the destination network
A. It consults the Frame Relay map
B. It consults the routing table to find the DLCI
C. It uses Frame Relay switching table to map DLCIs to IP addresses
D. It uses RARP to find the IP address of the corresponding DLCI
Match each term with its defination
CIR
DE
FECN
BECN
A. A bit that marks the frame to be dropped when congestion in present
B. A bit set on every frame that a switch place on a congested link
C. The rate at which the service provider agrees to accept bits on the VC
D. A bit set on every frame that a switch receives on a congested link
Match a security category to each security weakness( answer may be used more than once)
Operating system weakness
Unsecured user accounts
Network equipment weakness
Unsecured default settings
Lack of consistency and continuity
TCP/IP and ICMP weakness
Lack of disaster recovery plan
A. Technological weakness
B. Configuration weakness
C. Security policy weakness
( Which pieces of information can you determine from opening a router's Cisco SDM home page? ( Choose two
A. Routing table
B. CDP
C. Snapshot of the router configuration
D. A listing of available configuration wizards
E. Features supported by the Cisco IOS software
A technician has been asked to perform a Cisco SDM one-step lockdown test. Which mode and SDM page should be used to initiate the test
A. The firewall page in Diagnostic mode
B. The security Audit page in configuration mode
C. The Security Audit page in Test mode
D. The Firewall page in Test mode
Match each attack type with its description
Reconnaissance attack
Password attract
Port redirection
Worm, virus, Trojan horse
Dos attack
A. Dictionary-cracking and brute-force attack
B. Uses a compromised host to pass traffic through a firewall that would otherwise be dropped
C. Uses ping sweeps, port scans, and packed sniffers to gain information about a network
D. Flood a networks devices with traffic in an attempt to render it unusable for legitimate traffic
E. Malicious software designed to damage a system, replicate itself, or deny services or access to network, system, or services
What is a major advantage of HIPS over HIDS
A. HIPS does not requires host-based client software
B. HIPS consumers fewer system resources
C. HIPS can prevent intrusions
D. With HIPS, you don't need to update signature files as often
What is the core or "hub" component of the Security wheel
A. Secure
B. Monitor
C. Improve
D. Test
E. Security policy
As part of a network security plan, where does Cisco recommend that administrators send events captured by syslog
A. Flash
B. NVRAM
C. Designated TFTP clients
D. Designated TFTP clients
E. Designated SNMP clients
Which protocol should be used when strong privacy and session integrity are needed for remote administration
A. HTTP
B. SNMP
C. SSH
D. Telnet
E. TFTP
Match each network policy with its description
Account access request policy
Remote-access policy
Risk assessment policy
Audit policy
Acceptable user policy
A. Defines the standards for connecting to the internal network from outside the organization
B. Specifies procedures to investigate incidents, ensure conformance to security policies, and monitor user and system activity
C. Defines how network resources may not be emplyed
D. Formalizes the process of how users request access to systems
E. Formalizes the requirments and provides the authority for the information security team to identify, assess, and remediate risk to the information infrastructure associated with conducting business
What are the three required steps to configure SDM
A. Use the auto secure command to configure router security
B. Enable the HTTP and HTTPS servers on the security
C. Creat a user account defined with privilege level 15
D. Creat a user account defined with privilege level 0
E. Creat an ACL to allow HTTP trafic into the router, and apply it to the VTYs
F. Configure SSH and Telnet for local login and privilege level 15
G. Configure SSH and Telnet for local login and privilege level 0
( Which services should be disabled if they aren't required on a router to prevent security vulnerabilities? (Choose three
A. Network Time Protocol (NTP
B. Domain Name System (DNS
C. Secure Socket LAyer(SSL
D. Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF
E. Simple Network Management Protocol(SNMP
F. Secure Shell (SSH
Which features provides a straightforward "one-touch" device lockdoen for configuring the security posture of routers
A. SSH
B. SDM
C. AutoSecur
D. SNMP
Match the network management service with its description
Network Time Protocol(NTP
Domain Name System (DNS
Simple Network Management Protocol(SNMP
A. An application layer protocol that provides a facility for retrieving and posting data for monitoring and managing devices in a network using TCP port 161
B. A protocol designed to synchronized the time on a network of machines and that runs over UDP using port 123
C. A distributed database that maps hostnames to IP addresses using services on a designated server
Which fetures is a web-based device-management tool for Cisco IOS software-based routers
A. SSH
B. SDM
C. AutoSecure
D. SNMP
( Which SDM wizards are available to configure a router?(Choose three
A. Security audit
B. Firewall and ACL
C. DHCP
D. QoS
E. Routing
F. Access list
describes Cisco access control lists? (Choose two.)
A. Extended ACLs are created interface configuration mode.
B. Extended ACLs filter traffic based on source and destination IP, port number, and protocol.
C. Standard IP ACLs are numbered 1 to 99, and extended ACLs are numbered 100 to 199.
D. Standard ACLs permit or deny traffic to specific IP addresses.
E. Standard ACLs do not permit the use of wildcard masks.
Which statement is true about applying an access list to an interface
A. Access lists are applied in global configuration mode.
B. Named access list are applied in using the ip access-name command.
C. Standard access lists should be applied to an interface as close as possible to the destination.
D. The command for applying access list 101 inbound is ip access-list 101.
Which statement is a guideline to be followed when designing access control lists
A. Because ACL tests are executed in order, they should be organized from the most general condition to the most specific.
B. Because ACL test are executed in order, they should be organized from the most specific condition to the most general.
C. Because all statements in an ACL are evaluated before they are executed, an explicit deny any statement must be written for an ACL to function properly.
D. Because all statements in an ACL are evaluated before they are executed, an explicit permit any statement must be written for an ACL to function properly.
What occurs if the network administrator applies an IP access control list that have no permit statement outbound on an interface? (Choose two)
A. All traffic outbound is denied.
B. All traffic outbound is allowed.
C. Only traffic originating from the router is allowed outbound.
D. The ACL restricts all incoming traffic and filters outgoing traffic.
Which statement can be implemented with ACLs? ( Choose two)
A. Segment the network to increase available bandwidth.
B. Creat a firewall on a router to filter inbound traffic from an external network
C. Control traffic entering or exiting different areas of a local network
D. Distribution DHCP traffic to allow easier network availability
E. Allow oe deny traffic into the network based on the MAC address
Which IP address and wildcard mask test for hosts from an entire subnet of network 192.168.12.0 using a 29-bit mask
A. 192.168.12.56.0.0.0.15
B. 192.168.12.56.0.0.0.8
C. 192.168.12.56.0.0.0.31
D. 192.168.12.84.0.0.0.7
E. 192.168.12.84.0.0.0.3
F. 192.168.12.84.0.0.0.255
What kind of access list is created with the command ip access-list standard fastaccess
A. turbo ACL
B. Reflexive ACL
C. Named ACL
D. Dynamic ACL
An administrator wants to implement lock-and-key access to a host within the company network for specific users who are connecting from outside the company network
What type of ACL would best suits the situation.
A. Dynamic
B. Reflexive
C. Extended
D. Time based
What type of ACL should the network administrator implement to limit Internet traffic during peak hours of the day
A. Dynamic
B. Reflexive
C. Extended
D. Time based
Which statement correctly describes a reflexive access list
A. An ACL that allows IP traffic for sessions originating from inside the network while denying traffic fpr sessions originating from the outside
B. An ACL that controls traffic based on the time
C. Am ACL that uses an extended list to block users from tracersing a router until they are authenticated
D. An ACL that identifies only the sources of traffic
Categorize the follwing descriptions as belonging to either a standard IP ACL or an extended IP ACL
A. Checks only the source address
B. Access list number 100 to 199
C. Checks protocol and port numbers
D. Permits/denies only entire protocols based on network address
E. Access list numbers 1 to 99
F. Checks source and destination address
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